You’d think that the New York Times would understand the huge difference between a blockade and an occupation, but they apparently don’t. The lead article describes Gaza as being “occupied” by Israel. This is of course false: Gaza has been fully under Palestinian control since Israel withdrew in 2005. The blockade merely affects what passes the borders. It is very different from an occupation.
The question is, do the writers and editors of the New York Times really not understand such a basic difference, or are they intentionally misleading their readers in support of Palestinian propaganda?